Kevin Crotty
BUSI 448: Investments
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What does the set of possible portfolios look like if we combine a risky asset with a risk-free asset?
Example: a money market savings account with a stock fund.
Expected Return:
\[ E[r_p] = w E[r_{\text{risky}}]+ (1-w) r_f \,.\]
Variance:
\[\text{var}[r_p]=w^2 \text{var}[r_{\text{risky}}]+ (1-w)^2 \text{var}[r_f]+ 2 w(1-w) \text{cov}[r_{\text{risky}},r_f]\,. \]
What is true of \(\text{var}[r_f]\) and \(\text{cov}[r_{\text{risky}},r_f]\)?
\[ \text{sd}[r_p] = |w| \cdot \text{sd}[r_{\text{risky}}] \]
We can solve for \(w\) and substitute into the expected return def’n to obtain:
\[ \text{E}[r_p] = r_f + \bigg[ \frac{E[r_{\text{risky}}]-r_f}{\text{sd}[r_{\text{risky}}] }\bigg] \cdot \text{sd}[r_p] \]
The CAL for a risky asset is a set of portfolios combining the risky asset with the risk-free asset.
The term in brackets is called the Sharpe ratio!
Let’s assume that in addition to the US stock market fund, we are also considering investing in a long-term bond fund.
Mathematically, choose portfolio weights to solve the following constrained optimization problem:
\[ \underset{w_1,w_2,\dots,w_N}{\text{max}} \frac{E[r_p]-r_f}{\text{sd}[r_p]} \]
subject to constraints: \(\sum_i w_i=1\)
from scipy.optimize import minimize
n = len(MNS)
def f(w):
mn = w @ MNS
sd = np.sqrt(w @ COV @ w)
return -(mn - RF) / sd
# Initial guess (equal-weighted)
w0 = (1/n)*np.ones(n)
# Constraint: fully-invested portfolio
A = np.ones(n)
b = 1
cons = [{"type": "eq", "fun": lambda x: A @ x - b}]
# No short-sale constraint
bnds = [(None, None) for i in range(n)]
# Optimization
TOL = 10**(-10)
wgts = minimize(f, w0, bounds=bnds, constraints=cons, options={'ftol':TOL}).x
Allowing short sales, the tangency portfolio weights satisfy a system of equations: \[\begin{align*} \sum_{i=1}^N \text{cov}[r_1,r_i] w_i &= \delta (E[r_1] - r_f) \\ \sum_{i=1}^N \text{cov}[r_2,r_i] w_i &= \delta (E[r_2] - r_f) \\ & \vdots \\ \sum_{i=1}^N \text{cov}[r_N,r_i] w_i &= \delta (E[r_N] - r_f) \end{align*}\] where \(\delta\) is a constant (it is a Lagrange multiplier from the optimization problem)
Consider the tangency portfolio’s capital allocation line.
Would you ever invest in portfolios to the right of this line?
Where on this CAL would you invest?
Location on CAL depends on risk aversion!
We will assume that we like expected returns and dislike risk.
Risk aversion \(A\) measures `how much’ we dislike risk
\[ U(r_p)=E[r_p] - 0.5\cdot A \cdot \text{var}[r_p]\,.\]
When risk aversion is higher, a higher expected return is required to reach the utility for a given level of risk, and the extra expected return increases when risk increases.
Investors are indifferent between portfolios that generate the same utility.
Higher utility is achieved with either a higher expected return, lower risk, or both.
A mean-variance investor chooses \(w\) to solve:
\[ \underset{w}\max E[r_p] - 0.5\cdot A \cdot \text{var}[r_p]\,. \]
with \(r_p = w r_{\text{risky}} + (1-w) r_f\).
The optimal allocation to the risky portfolio is:
\[ w^* = \frac{E[r_{\text{risky}}-r_f]}{A \cdot \text{var}_{\text{risky}}}\,.\]
Investors with different risk aversion will choose different combinations of the risky asset and the risk-free asset.
Alternatively, some investors have a either a target expected return or target standard deviation.
If we have a target expected return, solve for \(w_{\text{risky}}\):
\[ E[r_p] = w_{\text{risky}} \cdot E[r_{\text{risky}}] + (1-w_{\text{risky}}) \cdot r_f \]
If we have a target standard deviation, solve for \(w_{\text{risky}}\):
\[ \text{sd}[r_p] = w_{\text{risky}} \cdot \text{sd}[r_{\text{risky}}] \]
BUSI 448